高考试题猜读模拟考场英语答案
只有不畏艰苦、勇于拼搏的人才能在学习上闯出一片天。高考加油!下面是学习啦小编为大家推荐的高考试题猜读模拟考场英语，仅供大家参考!
高考试题猜读模拟考场英语
第Ⅰ卷(选择题，共95分)
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
请听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the woman’s phone?
A. In the bedroom. B. In the kitchen. C. In the sitting room.
2. What’s the time now?
A. 6:20. B. 6:30. C. 7:00.
3. What does the man usually have for breakfast?
A. Fried rice noodles. B. Fried pancakes. C. Noodles.
4. What will the two speakers do next Wednesday?
A. Go for a picnic. B. Hand in their reports. C. Have a science class.
5. What does the man offer to do for the woman?
A. Give her money back. B. Exchange the item. C. Repair the item.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
请听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
请听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the man call?
A. To ask for help. B. To talk about a meeting. C. To ask about his daughter.
7. How long will the meeting last?
A. For an hour. B. For two hours. C. For three hours.
请听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Where does Linda work?
A. At a hospital. B. At a restaurant. C. At a bank.
9. What does the man do on Saturday morning?
A. He does some cleaning.
B. He washes the clothes.
C. He does some shopping.
请听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where did the woman go on a business trip?
A. To Boston. B. To Chicago. C. To New York.
11. What does the man do?
A. A businessman. B. A gardener. C. An engineer.
12. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers?
A. Partners. B. Neighbors. C. Couple.
请听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What does the man already have for the barbeque?
A. Vegetables. B. Drinks. C. Meat.
14. Who will bring wine?
A. Robert. B. Alice. C. Michael.
15. What will the man buy?
A. Cheese. B. Hot dogs. C. Tomato sauce.
16. What does the man think is the great thing about a barbeque?
A. Choosing how you want your meat cooked.
B. Doing all kinds of outdoor activities.
C. Choosing a good place for a barbeque.
请听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How was t he speaker traveling down Main Street?
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By car.
18. What did the speaker do that afternoon?
A. He went to a park. B. He went to the bank. C. He went to the cinema.
19. What was the young man doing when the police found him?
A. Drinking in a bar. B. Running up the street. C. Buying something.
20. How much was the reward that the speaker received?
A. 0. B. 0. C. 00.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分35分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题2.5分，满分25分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
In the early 1900s, C arol Ryrie Brink lived with her grandmother Caddie on a tiny farm in Idaho. The farm was a great place to live. Besides wonde rful tall climbing trees, it had cats and chickens and a horse, which she rode all over the countryside and through the streets of town.
Even so, Carol was sometimes lonely. She would climb to the top of her favorite tree and make up stories to cheer herself up. The favorite part of her day was when Grandmother Ca ddie would sit with her and tell stories about the adventures (冒险经历) she and her brothers had.
Carol loved the stories so much that when she grew up, she decided to write a book about them. Thousands of children throughout the world have read and loved Caddie Woodlawn. Carol’s book won a special award (奖项) called the Newbery Medal. Each year only one child’s book is chosen to win this award.
Carol said it was her son and daughter who inspired (激励) her to write for children. That wasn’t easy when she was busy taking care of a family. Sometimes an idea would come to her while she was washing the supper dishes. She would make a quick note and come back to write it out more fully after her children were asleep.
Carol wrote 27 books in her life, many of which are about her life in Idaho. Besides the Newbery Medal, she won many more awards. Later when another author Mary Reed wrote a book about Carol Ryrie Brink, she summed up (概括) Carol’s life by saying, “She tried to live in a way that would not harm others, to never waste a day, and to make the most of her life.”
21. When she felt lonely on the farm, Carol would _____.
A. ride a horse to the town
B. ask her grandmother to read her a story
C. climb all the tall trees
D. make herself happy with her own stories
22. What do we know about Caddie Woodlawn?
A. It is an award-winning book.
B. It is about Carol’s adventures.
C. It is unpopular among children.
D. It is one of Carol’s childhood works.
23. It can be inferred from Paragraph 4 that Carol _____.
A. once gave up writing because of the heavy housework
B. had a hard time in the early days of her writing
C. didn’t get any understanding from her family
D. didn’t earn much from her writing
B
The Tower of London, not a single tower but a large group, was built to guard London. Besides William and Henry VIII, the tower’s history has other famous names in British history. In 1389 a clerk of works named Geoffrey Chaucer — author of The Canterbury Tales — oversaw (监督) the building of the Tower Wharf. In 1671 Colonel Blood tried to steal the crown jewels (皇冠上镶的宝石) after overpowering the elderly Jewel House keeper. (Blood was caught but later pardoned.) Today the jewels remain in the tower as they have since Blood’s day.
For six centuries this place was also home to a group of animals from elephants to big cats. It stopped being used as an animals’ home in 1835 and its animals were moved to the London Zoo.
Today visitors can walk the walls, visit guard towers and see the crown jewels. Guards at the tower, popularly known as beefeaters, not only guard the tower but also give interesting tours that are among the most popular parts of any visit.
How to Get There
Trains and the Dockland Light Railway stop near the tower. Buses 15, 42, 78 and 100 reach the tower, and riverboats stop at Tower Pier. Taxis, bicycles, and fo ot power are also good ways to reach the tower. Driving is a less attractive choice because of the expensive parking.
When to Go
The tower is op en all year round, except during the Christmas holidays (December 24 to 26) and January 1. School holidays and summertime are the busiest times.
How to Visit
As expected at a place that has seen so much history, there is enough of interest at the Tower of London to keep visitors busy for days. Stop at the Welcome Center for visitor information on everything from the crown jewels to family fun activities.
24. The underlined sentence in Paragraph 2 shows _____.
A. the tower was built by famous people
B. some famous people caused trouble there
C. there were many famous people in British history
D. there were many interesting stories connected to the tower
25. Beefeaters at the tower _____.
A. have two roles B. like to eat beef
C. seem very serious D. often joke with visitors
26. According to the text, the Tower of London is _____.
A. easy to reach B. full of parked cars
C. busy all year round D. a perfect place for a one-day tour
C
Newborns begin to develop language skills long before they begin speaking. And, compared to adults, they develop these skills more quickly. People have a hard time learning new languages as they grow older, but babies have the ability to learn any language easily.
For a long time, scientists have tried to explain how such young children can learn the complicated (复杂的) grammatical rules and sounds of a language. Now, researchers are getting a better idea of what’s happening in the brains of the tiniest language learners. This new information might help kids with learning problems as well as adults who want to learn new languages. It might even help scientists who are trying to design computers that can communicate like people do.
Most babies go “ma ma” by 6 months of age, and most children speak in full sentences by age 3. For many years, scientists have wondered how the brains of young children figure out how to communicate using language. With the help of new technologies, scientists are now finding that babies begin life with the ability to learn any language. They get into contact (接触) with other people, listen to what they say and watch their movements very closely. That is why they quickly master the languages they hear most often.
Studies show that, up to about 6 months of age, babies can recognize all the sounds that make up all the languages in the world. Starting at around 6 months old a baby’s brain focuses on (集中于) the most common sounds it hears. Then, children begin responding only to the sounds of the language they hear the most.
In a similar way older babies start recognizing the patterns that make up the rules of their native language. For example, English children who are about 18 months old start to figure out that words ending in “-ing” or “-ed” are usually verbs, and that verbs are action words.
27. The new research in the second paragraph can be helpful in _____.
A. finding successful language learners
B. teaching kids with learning problems
C. designing human-shaped computers
D. improving babies’ language ability
28. The researchers found out that babies learn a language mainly by _____.
A. repeating the words of other people
B. remembering the full sentences they hear
C. hearing and closely watching others speak
D. figuring out the meaning of different sounds
29. In the last two paragraphs, the author explains _____.
A. why babies pay more attention to sounds
B. how babies respond to what they hear most often
C. why verbs in a language attract the most attention of a baby
D. how babies master the grammatical rules of their native language
30. The purpose of the text is to _____.
A. discuss B. educate C. inform D. entertain
第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to make a friend
Smile!
It’s the easiest way to let someone know that you’re nice! ▲ 31 You may notice at first that it feels strange to smile a lot, but over time, you’ll find that one smile can really make a difference in your life.
Be fun!
▲32 Think about the people you most enjoy being with — usually they are always on the up and up. Being fun makes people happy and brightens the way they think of you. It makes you seem like you truly love life and you can deal with any problems that you have to face.
Listen!
Good conversations are important when you want to make a new friend, and sometimes you just have to be quiet and listen. When you do get chatting, pay attention to what they’re saying. ▲ 33 Phew! It’s hard work making new friends, but it’s worth it!
▲ 34
Ask people who take classes with you questions about what they study today. ▲ 35 Other great conversation starters are upcoming events and holidays, sports, food, music, etc. If they’re listening to their iPods, ask what their favourite music is. It’s the best way to get a conversation started because it needs an answer and they have to answer you!
A. Change!
B. Ask a question!
C. Classwork is a great icebreaker.
D. Say “hello” and see what happens.
E. And don’t just talk about yourself all the time.
F. Even the shyest person can manage a little smile.
G. We all prefer spending time with people who make us feel happy.
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
The wagon train (马车队) had been traveling for weeks now. Emily was getting tired — tired of not having a comfortable bed to sleep in or a 36 home. She was also 37 because there was never anything fun for a girl of her age to do. Mama promised it wouldn’t be too much longer, 38 the trip seemed to take forever.
Then, one day, a rabbit caught Emily’s eye. Maybe she could 39 it, and then she’d have a pet! Emily ran after the rabbit into the woods behind the wagons, but it 40 . Emily looked for it, and at last she 41 . She turned to go back, but 42 looked familiar (熟悉的). She started in one direction, but it was the wrong 43 . Emily tried another direction, but soon found that that was 44 , too.
Emily was 45 . What if she couldn’t 46 the wagons? What if they didn’t realize she was 47 and just kept moving farther and farther away from her? What if some dangerous animal attacked her?
Emily sat on the ground and started to cry ... but wait ... did she hear 48 ? She stood up and ran toward them. As she got 49 , she recognized Mama’s voice and the voices of some of the men from the 50 . Then she could see them. Emily ran as 51 as she could, right into Mama’s 52 arms.
Mama carried Emily back to their wagon and put her to bed. Emily was 5 3 that she was home. 54 was wherever Mama was. She’d never 55 about being bored again.
36. A. big B. new C. real D. special
37. A. afraid B. nervous C. lazy D. bored
38. A. and B. so C. but D. or
39. A. dress B. kill C. buy D. catch
40. A. waited B. arrived C. stopped D. disappeared
41. A. calmed down B. gave up C. set off D. came in
42 A. everything B. nothing C. something D. anything
43. A. gate B. answer C. way D. plan
44. A. dangerous B. strange C. impolite D. wrong
45. A. frightened B. excited C. moved D. surprised
46. A. afford B. remember C. mend D. find
47. A. asleep B. busy C. tired D. missing
48. A. songs B. shouts C. cheers D. noises
49. A. farther B. away C. closer D. inside
50. A. forest B. train C. station D. zoo
51. A. safely B. easily C. quickly D. slowly
52. A. falling B. welcoming C. waiting D. preparing
53. A. glad B. sad C. angry D. proud
54. A. Promise B. Trip C. Home D. Love
55. A. hear B. complain C. care D. know
第II卷(非选择题，共55分)
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第二节 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分，共15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
When Elias, a poor black worker in South Africa, first ___56___(meet) Nelson Mandela, he was in ___57___ very difficult period of his life. He had to leave school because his family could not continue to pay the school fees and the bus fare. When he got a job, he was worried about ___58___ (be) out of work because he didn’t have a passbook. Then Mandela, ___59___ offered guidance to poor black people on their legal ___60___ (problem), told him what to do and helped him. When Mandela organized the ANC Youth League, Elias joined it as soon as he could. At that time, black people couldn’t vote ___61___ choose their leaders. They couldn’t get the jobs they wanted and the parts of town in which they had to live were decided by white people. ___62___ the help of Mandela they chose ___63___ (attack) the laws, and fought against the white people with ___64___ (violent). In 1963 Elias helped Mandela blow up some government buildings, __65___ it was very dangerous. He was happy to help because he knew it would help them achieve their dream of making black and white people equal.
第四部分 写作 (共两节 满分40分)
第一节 话题微写作(共1题，满分15分)
请使用括号内所给的单词、短语和句型翻译下列中文句子，并按照逻辑连成短文。
1.我的朋友老王说服我们和他一起骑车去旅游。(persuade)
2.他很可靠，把这次旅游安排的尽善尽美。(organize)
3.他关注准备工作的每个细节。(care about)
4.他选择了路线，并且制订了日程表。 (schedule)
5.他还告诉我们无论旅途中有多少困难，一个意志力坚定的人永远不会放弃。
(no matter...)
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假设你是一所国际学校广播站的英语播音员。为提高大家的防震意识，你校将举办一次地震演练。请你根据所提供的信息，用英语写一篇广播稿。
时间：下周二上午10:00—11:00 参加人员：全体学生
要求：1. 班主任先召开班会，对学生进行指导;
2. 各班学生记住自己的疏散路线，听到信号立即开始疏散;
3. 最后班主任带领学生到操场集合;
4. 各班抽出2名学生作为志愿者维持秩序。
注意: 1. 词数100左右(开头和结尾已给出，但不计入总词数);2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;3. 参考词汇：演练drill;信号signal;集合gather
Dear boys and girls,
Attention, please!
______________________________________
_____________________________________That’s all. Thank you.
高考试题猜读模拟考场英语参考答案
第一卷(共95分)
第一部分：听力(共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分)
1-5 CABCB 6-10ABCAC 11-15 CBCAC 16-20 ABCCA
第二部分：阅读理解(共15小题;21-30题每题2.5分，31-35题每题2分，满分35分)
A篇 21-23 DAB B篇 24-26 DAA
C篇 27-30 BCDC 31-35 FGEBC
第三部分：语言运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第一节：完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)
36-40 CDCDD 41-45 BBCDA 46-50 DDBCB 51-55 CBACB
第二卷(共55分)
第二节: 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分，共15分)
56. met 57. a 58. being 59. who 60. pr oblems
61.or 62. With 63. to attack 64.violence 65. though\although\even if
第四部分：写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节：话题微写作(共1题，满分15分)
第二节 书面表达
One possible version:
Dear boys and girls,
Attention, please!
An earthquake drill is to be held from 10:00 am to 11:00 am next Tuesda y. All the students are required to take part in the drill. Class meetings should be held first to give the students some instructions on what to do when an earthquake occurs. It is important for students in each class to bear in mind your escape routes. On hearing the signal, students should escape immediately under the guidance of the class teacher. All the students are to gather in the playground. Two student volunteers should be chosen from each class to keep order during the drill.
That’s all. Thank you.
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